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This was an obvious flagrant 2, so obvious that of 2,300 people polled…93% said it was one
You were ejected based on what the rules call for from a Flagrant 2 foul
So where exactly is the “privilege” involved? Please explain it to us
I’ve never once claimed that the assessment of the foul was white privilege (that was your assumption). Try exercising your critical thinking skills, I know you studied psych. Furthermore, I’m the LAST thing from ignorant or asinine when it comes to speaking on “white privilege”,
One resulted in no card. The other warranted VAR that led to a red card. The only difference between these two plays is the name on the back of the jersey
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